Wednesday, June 26, 2013

Questions on Atomic Physics Including JEE (Advanced) 2013 Questions



“Happiness comes when your work and words are of benefit to others.”
– Buddha

Today we shall discuss a few multiple choice questions on atomic physics. Questions in this section are simple and interesting. You can work out most of the questions in this section without consuming much time and hence you will be justified in giving some preference to them. Here are the questions with their solution:

(1) An electron and a positron moving along a straight line in opposite directions with equal speeds suffer a head-on collision and get annihilated, producing two photons. Along which directions will the photons travel?

(a) Along straight lines at right angles

(b) Along straight lines inclined at 45 º

(c) Along straight lines inclined at 120 º

(d) Along a straight line in opposite directions

(e) Along straight lines arbitrarily oriented


The net momentum of the system consisting of an electron and a positron moving with the same speed in opposite directions is equal to zero since the electron and the positron have the same mass. Therefore, the net momentum of the products produced in the collision process must be zero in accordance with the law of conservation of momentum. Cancellation of the momenta of the photons (for achieving the condition of zero net momentum) is possible only if the photons travel along a straight line in opposite directions [Option (d)].


(2) Suppose the wave length of one of the photons produced in the pair annihilation process considered in the above question is λ. The wave length of the other photon is

(a) λ

(b) 2 λ

(c) 3 λ

(d) an integral multiple of λ

(e) any thing, which can not be theoretically predicted.

Since the net momentum of the system is zero, the photons must possess equal and opposite momenta. Momentum p of a photon is related to its energy E by

            p = E/c where c is the speed of light in free space.

The photons generated must therefore be of the same energy. In other words their wave lengths must be the same [Option (a)].

The following single correct answer type multiple choice question was included in the JEE (Advanced) 2013 question paper:

(3) A pulse of light of duration 100 ns is completely absorbed by a small object initially at rest. Power of the pulse is 30 mW and the speed of light is 3×108 ms–1. The final momentum of the object is

(a) 0.3×10–17 kg ms–1

(b) 1×10–17 kg ms–1

(c) 3×10–17 kg ms–1

(d) 9×10–17 kg ms–1

Since the light pulse is completely absorbed by the object, the entire momentum of the pulse is transferred to the object. If E is the energy of the pulse, the momentum p is given by

            p =  E/c where c is the speed of light in free space.

But E = Pt where P is the power and t is the duration of the pulse.

Therefore, we have

             p = Pt/c = (30×10–3)×(100×10–9) /( 3×108) = 1×10–17 kg ms–1

The following single digit integer answer type question (in which the answer is an integer ranging from 0 to 9) also was included in the JEE (Advanced) 2013 question paper:

(4) The work functions of silver and sodium are 4.6 and 3.2 eV respectively. The ratio of the slope of the stopping potential versus frequency plot for silver to that of sodium is:

Ans : ?

The maximum kinetic energy KEmax of the photo electron is given by

            KEmax = hνφ where h is Planck’s constant, ν is the frequency of the incident radiation and φ is the work function of the photo emitting surface.

If the stopping potential is V, we have

            KEmax = eV where e is the electronic charge.

Therefore, eV = hνφ from which

            V = (h/e)νφ/e

The above equation shows that if the stopping potebtial V is plotted against the frequency ν, a straight line graph of slope h/e is obtained.

Since h/e is a constant, the slope is the same for all photo emitters. Therefore, the  ratio of  slopes = 1.

Thus Ans. = 1 


You will find some useful multiple choice questions from atomic physics and nuclear physics here as well as here.

Thursday, May 09, 2013

NEET 2013 Questions (MCQ) on Rotational Motion



God used beautiful mathematics in creating the world.
– Dirac, Paul  Adrien Maurice



The following two questions on rotational motion, which were included in the NEET 2013 question paper, are worth noting:

(1) A small object of uniform density rolls up a curved surface with an initial velocity “v”. It reaches up to a maximum height of 3v2/4g with respect to the initial position. The object is

(1) solid sphere

(2) hollow sphere

(3) disc

(4) ring


Initially the object has rotational and translational kinetic energy but zero gravitational potential energy. At the maximum height of 3v2/4g it has zero kinetic energy since the entire kinetic energy is converted into gravitational potential energy. Thus we have

            ½ I ω2 + ½ mv2 + 0 = mg(3v2/4g) where ‘I’ is the moment of inertia of the object about the axis of rotation, ‘ω’ is the angular velocity, ‘m’ is the mass and ‘v’ is the linear velocity of the object.

Simplifying, ½ I ω2 = ¼  mv2

Since ω =v/R the above equation becomes

            Iv2/R2 = ½ mv2

Therefore I = mR2/2

This means that the object is a disc [Option (3)].



(2) A rod PQ of M  and length L is hinged at end P. The rod is held horizontally by a massless string tied to point Q as shown in the figure. When the string is cut, the initial acceleration of the rod is

(1) g/L

(2) 2g/L

(3) 2g/3L

(4) 3g/2L

When the string is cut, the rod rotates about the end P and the torque responsible for the rotation is MgL/2.

[The weight Mg of the rod acts through the centre of gravity located at the middle of the rod. The distance of the line of action of the weight from the axis of rotation (the lever arm for the torque) is L/2]

Since torque is equal to Iα where I is the moment of inertia and α is the angular acceleration we have

            Iα = MgL/2 ……………..(i)

The moment of inertia of the rod about the axis of rotation through its end is ML2/3 as given by the parallel axes theorem.

[Moment of inertia of a uniform rod about a central axis perpendicular to its length is ML2/12. Moment of inertia about a parallel axis through the middle is ML2/12 + M(L/2)2 = ML2/3].

Substituting for I in equation (i),  we have

            (ML2/3)α = MgL/2

Therefore α = 3g/2L



Sunday, May 05, 2013

JEE Main 2013 Questions on Geometric Optics



Science distinguishes a Man of Honor from one of those Athletic Brutes whom undeservedly we call Heroes.
– John Dryden (English poet, critic, dramatist)

The following questions on geometrical optics appeared in JEE Main 2013 question paper:
(1) Diameter of a plano - convex lens is 6 cm and thickness at the centre is 3mm. If speed of light in material of lens is 2 × 108 m/s, the focal length of the lens is :
(1) 15 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 30 cm
(4) 10 cm

In the adjoining figure the plano-convex lens is represented by ABCDA. The thickness of the lens is BD (which is equal to 0.3 cm) and the radius of the curved surface of the lens is R.
We have
            R2 = (R – 0.3)2 + 32
This gives R ≈ 15 cm.
The refractive index n of the material of the lens is the ratio of the speed of light in free space to the speed in the material of the lens:
             n = (3×108) /(2×108) = 1.5
The focal length f of the lens is given by the lens maker’s equation.
            1/f = (n – 1)(1/R  – 0)
[Since the second surface is plane, the reciprocal of its radius of curvature is zero]
Therefore 1/f = (1.5 – 1)(1/15) from which f = 30 cm
(2) The graph between angle of deviation (δ) and angle of incidence (i) for a triangular prism is represented by :


This is a very simple question. Most of you might have drawn the i - δ  curve by experimentally determining the values of δ for various values of i during your lab session. On increasing the angle of incidence i from a small value, the angle of deviation δ  decreases, attains a minimum value and then increases. The non-linear increase and decrease are in accordance with the relation,
            δ = i + e A where e is the angle of emergence and A is the angle of the prism.
The correct option is (3). 


Saturday, March 02, 2013

BITSAT Questions (MCQ) on Direct Current Circuits

There are two ways to live your life. One is as though nothing is a miracle; the other is as though everything is a miracle.
Albert Einstein


We shall discuss a few interesting multiple choice questions on direct current circuits, which appeared in BITSAT question papers.

The following question appeared in BITSAT 2009 question paper:

(1) In the adjacent shown circuit, a voltmeter of internal resistance R, when connected across B and C reads (100/3) V. Neglecting the internal resistance of the battery, the value of R is
(a) 100 KΩ
(b) 75 KΩ                                                                                  
(c) 50 KΩ
(d) 25 KΩ
Since the voltage drop axross B and C is (100/3) volt, which is 1/3 of the supply voltage, the effective resistance of the parallel combination of the voltmeter resistance R and the 50 KΩ resistor must be 25 KΩ.
[2/3 of the supply voltage is dropped across the 50 KΩ resistor in the gap AB and hence the effective resistance (in the gap BC) that drops 1/3 of the supply voltage must be 25 KΩ].
Since 50 KΩ  in parallel with 50 KΩ makes 25 KΩ, the internal resistance R of the voltmeter must be 50 KΩ [Option (c)].

[If you want to make things more clear, you may write the following mathematical steps:
The current I sent by the battery is given by
            I = 100/[50 + {(50×R)/(50+R)}]
In the above equation we have written the resistances in KΩ so that we will obtain the final answer in KΩ.
Since the voltage drop across B and C is (100/3) volt, we have
            100/3 = {(50×R)/(50+R)}× I
Or, 100/3 = {(50×R)/(50+R)}×100/[50 +{(50×R)/(50+R)}]
Rearranging, (50 + R) [50 +{(50×R)/(50+R)}] = 150 R
Or, 2500 + 50 R + 50 R = 150 R
This gives R = 50 and the answer is 50 KΩ since we have written resistances in KΩ].
The following question appeared in BITSAT 2005 question paper:
(2) Two resistances are connected in two gaps of a metre bridge. The balance point is 20 cm from the zero end. A resistance of 15 Ω is connected in series with the smaller of the two. The null point shifts to 40 cm.the value of the smaller resistance in ohms is:
(a) 3
(b) 6
(c) 9
(d)12

If P is the smaller resistance (Fig.) and Q is the larger resistance, we have
            P/Q = 20/80 = ¼ ………..   (i)
After connecting 15 Ω in series with P we have
            (P + 15)/Q = 40/60 = 2/3……….(ii)
On dividing Eq.(i) by Eq.(ii) we have
P/(P + 15) = 3/8
Therefore, 8P = 3P + 45 from which P = 9 Ω
The following question also appeared in BITSAT 2005 question paper:

(3) The current in a simple series circuit is 5 A. When an additional resistance of 2 Ω is inserted, the current drops to 4 A. The original resistance of the circuit in ohms was:
(a) 1.25
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 20

If the emf in the circuit is V volt and the original resistance of the circuit is R ohms we have
            V/R = 5 -----------------(i)
On inserting the additional resistance of 2 Ω we have
            V/ (R+2) = 4 -----------------(ii)
On dividing Eq.(i) by Eq.(ii) we have
            (R+2)/R = 5/4 
Or, 4R + 8 = 5R from which R = 8 Ω.
The following question also appeared in BITSAT 2008 question paper:

(4) A current of 2 A flows in an electric circuit as shown in the figure. The potential difference (VR VS), in volts (VR and VS are potentials at R and S respectively) is
(a) – 4
(b) + 2
(c) + 4
(d) – 2
Since the two branches PRQ and PSQ contain equal resistances (10 Ω), the current gets divided equally at the junction P. The same current of 1 A flows through yhe branches. Taking Q as the reference point to measure the potentials at R and S we have
            VR = + 7 volt and
            VS = + 3 volt
[Note that VR is the potential drop produced across the 7 Ω resistor connected between Q and R and VS is the potential drop produced across the 3 Ω resistor connected between Q and S].
Therefore (VR VS) = + 4 volt